Let $(\mathcal{R}, +, \cdot)$ be a ring without necessary a unitary element but it has at least two elements. If $\mathcal{R}$ furthermore satisfies the property: "for every element $a \in \mathcal{R}$ that is not zero ($a \neq 0$) there exists a unique element $b \in \mathcal{R}$ such that $aba=a$ , then prove that:
Before we proceed with the exercise let us quote the following comment. A ring $(\mathcal{R}, +, \cdot)$ is called regural ring in the sense of Von Neumann if forall $a \in \mathcal{R}$ there exists a $b \in \mathcal{R}$ such that $aba=a$. Also a regular ring in the sense of Von Neumann is called unitary under the same sense if forall $a \in \mathcal{R} \setminus \{0\}$ there exists a unique $b \in \mathcal{R}$ such that $aba=a$.
- $\mathcal{R}$ does not have zero divisors.
- $bab=b$.
- $\mathcal{R}$ has a unitary element.
- $\mathcal{R}$ is a divisor ring.
Before we proceed with the exercise let us quote the following comment. A ring $(\mathcal{R}, +, \cdot)$ is called regural ring in the sense of Von Neumann if forall $a \in \mathcal{R}$ there exists a $b \in \mathcal{R}$ such that $aba=a$. Also a regular ring in the sense of Von Neumann is called unitary under the same sense if forall $a \in \mathcal{R} \setminus \{0\}$ there exists a unique $b \in \mathcal{R}$ such that $aba=a$.
- Let $a, c \in \mathcal{R}$ such that $ac=0$. We will prove that either $a=0$ or $b=0$. Suppose that $a \neq 0$. Let $b$ be the unique element of $\mathcal{R}$ such that $aba=a$. Then we have that:
$$a(b+c)a=aba+aca=aba+0=a$$
Due to the uniqueness of $b$ , $aba=a$, we have that $b+c=b$. Therefore, due to the law of cancelling we get that $c=0$. Similarly, if $c \neq 0$ we show that $a=0$. Hence $\mathcal{R}$ does not have zero divisors. - From question i. since $\mathcal{R}$ does not have zero divisors we know that the law of cancelling will hold. Thus,
$$aba=a \Rightarrow baba=ba \Rightarrow bab=b$$ - We will prove that $\mathcal{R}$ has a unitary element and that this is $ab$ where $b$ is the unique element such that $aba=a$. Let $c \in \mathcal{R}$. Since $aba=a$ it holds that $ca=caba$ and thus:
\begin{equation} c=c(ab) \end{equation}
Since from question ii. we have that $bab=b$ , it follows that
\begin{equation} c=(ab)c \end{equation}
From equations $(1)$ and $(2)$ it follows that:
$$(ab)c = c = c(ab)$$
and thus $ab$ is the unitary element of $\mathcal{R}$, that is $ab=1$. - Let $a \neq 0$. Then , since $aba=a$ , and due to question iii. , it follows that $ab=1$. This means that $b$ is right inverse of $a$. Now, $a, b$ cannot be both zero since then the ring would have one element which is a contradiction due to the assumption. Using the Law of Cancelling we have that:
$$ab=1 ab=abab \Rightarrow 1b = b = bab \Rightarrow ba=1$$
Hence $ab=1=ba$. This means that the element $a \neq 0$ is invertible and $a^{-1}=b$ holds. It follows that every non zero element of $\mathcal{R}$ is invertible and that $\mathcal{R}$ is a divisor ring.
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