This site is currently being migrated at a new site. Please read the information below.

LaTeX

Unicode

Saturday, May 7, 2016

$\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin^2 (\tan x)}{x^2}\, dx$

Evaluate the integral:

$$\int_0^\infty \frac{\sin^2 (\tan x)}{x^2}\, {\rm d}x$$

Solution

We have successively:


\begin{align*}\int_0^{\infty} \frac{\sin^2 \tan x}{x^2}\,{\rm d}x&= \frac{1}{2}\int_{-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{\sin^2 \tan x}{x^2}\,{\rm d}x\\&= \frac{1}{2}\sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sin^2 \tan (x+n\pi)}{(x+n\pi)^2}\,{\rm d}x\\&= \frac{1}{2}\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \sin^2 \tan x \left(\sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x+n\pi)^2}\right)\,{\rm d}x\\&= \frac{1}{2}\int_{-\pi/2}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sin^2 \tan x}{\sin^2 x}\,{\rm d}x\\&= \int_{0}^{\pi/2} \frac{\sin^2 \cot x}{\cos^2 x}\,{\rm d}x\\&= \int_0^{\infty} \sin^2 \frac{1}{y}\,{\rm d}y = \frac{\pi}{2}\end{align*}

since $\displaystyle \frac{1}{\sin^2 x} = \sum\limits_{n=-\infty}^{\infty} \frac{1}{(x+n\pi)^2}, \; x \notin \mathbb{Z}$ holds. 

The exercise can also be found at mathimatikoi.org

No comments:

Post a Comment